Sample paper · Class 12 · CBSE · Science Biology

Biology · Sample Paper 3

CBSE board pattern, rationalised Class 12 syllabus — all 13 chapters, a fresh set of questions.

33 questions · 70 marks · 180 minutes

Timed, marked on submit · free with an account

General instructions

  1. This paper has 33 questions in five sections, A to E. All questions are compulsory.
  2. Section A — Q1 to Q16: MCQs and assertion-reason questions, 1 mark each.
  3. Section B — Q17 to Q21: very short answer questions, 2 marks each.
  4. Section C — Q22 to Q28: short answer questions, 3 marks each.
  5. Section D — Q29 and Q30: case-based questions, 4 marks each.
  6. Section E — Q31 to Q33: long answer questions, 5 marks each.
  7. Internal choice is given in Q19, Q24, Q31 and Q33. Answer only one alternative.
  8. Draw neat, labelled diagrams wherever necessary.

Section A · Objective

Questions 1–16 carry 1 mark each. Choose the correct option.

  1. Question 11 mark

    The male gametophyte in angiosperms is the

    1. A.ovule
    2. B.pollen grain
    3. C.embryo sac
    4. D.anther wall
  2. Question 21 mark

    Formation of more than one embryo in a seed is

    1. A.apomixis
    2. B.polyembryony
    3. C.parthenocarpy
    4. D.cleistogamy
  3. Question 31 mark

    The corpus luteum secretes mainly

    1. A.oestrogen
    2. B.progesterone
    3. C.FSH
    4. D.LH
  4. Question 41 mark

    Which part of the sperm contains mitochondria?

    1. A.head
    2. B.neck
    3. C.middle piece
    4. D.tail
  5. Question 51 mark

    Mendel chose the garden pea because it

    1. A.had many contrasting traits and short life cycle
    2. B.was a tree
    3. C.could not self-pollinate
    4. D.had large seeds only
  6. Question 61 mark

    Haemophilia is an example of

    1. A.autosomal dominant disorder
    2. B.sex-linked recessive disorder
    3. C.chromosomal disorder
    4. D.Mendelian dominant disorder
  7. Question 71 mark

    Which nitrogenous base is found only in RNA?

    1. A.adenine
    2. B.thymine
    3. C.uracil
    4. D.guanine
  8. Question 81 mark

    The Human Genome Project found that humans have about

    1. A.3000 genes
    2. B.20 000–25 000 genes
    3. C.1 lakh genes
    4. D.1 million genes
  9. Question 91 mark

    The yeast used in making bread is

    1. A.Saccharomyces cerevisiae
    2. B.Lactobacillus
    3. C.Aspergillus
    4. D.Rhizopus
  10. Question 101 mark

    Which disease is caused by a virus?

    1. A.typhoid
    2. B.common cold
    3. C.malaria
    4. D.ringworm
  11. Question 111 mark

    The enzyme used to join DNA fragments in rDNA technology is

    1. A.restriction endonuclease
    2. B.DNA ligase
    3. C.Taq polymerase
    4. D.lysozyme
  12. Question 121 mark

    Which of these is an example of amensalism?

    1. A.Penicillium inhibiting bacteria
    2. B.lichens
    3. C.cattle egret and cattle
    4. D.tapeworm in humans
  13. Question 131 mark

    Assertion (A): Lactational amenorrhoea is a natural method of contraception.

    Reason (R): Ovulation and menstruation do not occur during intense lactation after childbirth (up to about six months).

    1. A.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. B.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    4. D.Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  14. Question 141 mark

    Assertion (A): Bt cotton is resistant to bollworms.

    Reason (R): The Cry protein becomes toxic in the alkaline gut of the insect.

    1. A.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. B.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    4. D.Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  15. Question 151 mark

    Assertion (A): In a grassland, the pyramid of numbers is upright.

    Reason (R): Producers in a grassland are more numerous than herbivores, which in turn outnumber carnivores.

    1. A.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. B.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    4. D.Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  16. Question 161 mark

    Assertion (A): Darwin's finches of the Galápagos are an example of adaptive radiation.

    Reason (R): Adaptive radiation is the evolution of different species from a common ancestor in a given area.

    1. A.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
    2. B.Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
    3. C.Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    4. D.Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Section B · Very short answer

Questions 17–21 carry 2 marks each.

  1. Question 172 marks

    What is the function of the tapetum? Where is it found?

  2. Question 182 marks

    What is IVF? Name the technique in which the embryo is transferred into the uterus at the 8-cell stage or later.

  3. Question 192 marks

    What is a pedigree analysis? Why is it useful in humans?

  4. OR

    Question 192 marks

    Differentiate between Turner's syndrome and Klinefelter's syndrome.

  5. Question 202 marks

    Name two antibiotics and the organisms that produce them.

  6. Question 212 marks

    What is the difference between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity?

Section C · Short answer

Questions 22–28 carry 3 marks each.

  1. Question 223 marks

    Describe the structure of a human sperm with a labelled (described) diagram.

  2. Question 233 marks

    Explain the three steps of translation.

  3. Question 243 marks

    Explain the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology.

  4. OR

    Question 243 marks

    What is a bioreactor? Name its main components.

  5. Question 253 marks

    What is cancer? How do cancer cells differ from normal cells? Name two methods of diagnosis.

  6. Question 263 marks

    What is RNA interference? How is it used to make tobacco plants resistant to nematodes?

  7. Question 273 marks

    Explain the different ways in which organisms respond to abiotic stresses.

  8. Question 283 marks

    What are biodiversity hotspots? Name the hotspots found in India.

Section D · Case-based

Questions 29 and 30 are case-based and carry 4 marks each.

  1. Question 294 marks

    Case study — Vaccination drive. A district health team runs a vaccination camp for children against polio, measles and hepatitis B. Some parents worry about side effects. The doctor explains that vaccines contain weakened or killed pathogens or their proteins, which train the immune system.

    (i) What type of immunity is developed by vaccination? (1 mark)

    (ii) Which cells retain the 'memory' of the pathogen? (1 mark)

    (iii) Explain how vaccination protects a person from a future infection. (2 marks)

    OR

    (iii) Differentiate between innate and acquired immunity. (2 marks)

  2. Question 304 marks

    Case study — Antibiotic resistance. In a hospital, doctors found that a strain of bacteria that used to be killed easily by an antibiotic now survives treatment. Over years of antibiotic use, the resistant bacteria multiplied while the sensitive ones were killed.

    (i) Which evolutionary process explains this observation? (1 mark)

    (ii) Is this an example of evolution by anthropogenic action? Why? (1 mark)

    (iii) Explain the role of variation and selection in the rise of resistant bacteria. (2 marks)

    OR

    (iii) Give two ways to slow down antibiotic resistance. (2 marks)

Section E · Long answer

Questions 31–33 carry 5 marks each.

  1. Question 315 marks

    Describe the structure of DNA as proposed by Watson and Crick (double helix). What is the role of hydrogen bonds in it?

  2. OR

    Question 315 marks

    Explain the process of DNA replication.

  3. Question 325 marks

    Describe the events from fertilisation to implantation in humans.

  4. Question 335 marks

    What is ecological succession? Describe hydrarch succession.

  5. OR

    Question 335 marks

    Explain the patterns of biodiversity: latitudinal gradients and the species–area relationship.

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