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Sample paper · NEET Preparation Zoology

Zoology · Sample Paper 1

NEET-UG pattern — 45 MCQs on the full Class 11 + 12 Zoology syllabus, 4 marks each.

45 questions · 180 marks · 45 minutes

Timed, marked on submit · free with an account

General instructions

  1. This paper has 45 multiple-choice questions, each with one correct answer. All are compulsory.
  2. Section A — Q1 to Q26: Class 11 syllabus. Section B — Q27 to Q45: Class 12 syllabus.
  3. Each correct answer earns 4 marks. In the real NEET a wrong answer costs 1 mark; this practice paper does not deduct marks.
  4. Time: 45 minutes — the share of Zoology in the 180-minute NEET paper.

Section A · Class 11 syllabus

Questions 1–26, 4 marks each.

  1. Question 14 marks

    Flame cells are excretory structures in

    1. A.Annelida
    2. B.Platyhelminthes
    3. C.Arthropoda
    4. D.Mollusca
  2. Question 24 marks

    Which animal is a pseudocoelomate?

    1. A.earthworm
    2. B.Ascaris
    3. C.Hydra
    4. D.starfish
  3. Question 34 marks

    Comb plates for locomotion are found in

    1. A.Ctenophora
    2. B.Cnidaria
    3. C.Porifera
    4. D.Echinodermata
  4. Question 44 marks

    Which reptile has a four-chambered heart?

    1. A.snake
    2. B.lizard
    3. C.crocodile
    4. D.turtle
  5. Question 54 marks

    Which junction lets ions pass directly between adjacent cells?

    1. A.tight junction
    2. B.adhering junction
    3. C.gap junction
    4. D.desmosome
  6. Question 64 marks

    Histamine is secreted by

    1. A.mast cells
    2. B.macrophages
    3. C.fibroblasts
    4. D.adipocytes
  7. Question 74 marks

    The most abundant protein in animals is

    1. A.RuBisCO
    2. B.collagen
    3. C.haemoglobin
    4. D.insulin
  8. Question 84 marks

    Malonate inhibits succinic dehydrogenase by

    1. A.non-competitive inhibition
    2. B.competitive inhibition
    3. C.denaturation
    4. D.feedback activation
  9. Question 94 marks

    Which enzyme class catalyses hydrolysis?

    1. A.transferases
    2. B.hydrolases
    3. C.lyases
    4. D.ligases
  10. Question 104 marks

    Vital capacity equals

    1. A.TV + IRV
    2. B.TV + ERV
    3. C.TV + IRV + ERV
    4. D.TV + RV
  11. Question 114 marks

    The respiratory rhythm centre is located in the

    1. A.cerebrum
    2. B.cerebellum
    3. C.medulla
    4. D.hypothalamus
  12. Question 124 marks

    The oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right when

    1. A.pCO₂ falls
    2. B.temperature falls
    3. C.H⁺ concentration rises
    4. D.pH rises
  13. Question 134 marks

    The pacemaker of the human heart is the

    1. A.AV node
    2. B.SA node
    3. C.bundle of His
    4. D.Purkinje fibres
  14. Question 144 marks

    The QRS complex of an ECG represents

    1. A.atrial depolarisation
    2. B.ventricular depolarisation
    3. C.ventricular repolarisation
    4. D.atrial repolarisation
  15. Question 154 marks

    A person with blood group AB has

    1. A.anti-A and anti-B antibodies
    2. B.no anti-A or anti-B antibodies
    3. C.only anti-A
    4. D.only anti-B
  16. Question 164 marks

    Most reabsorption of the glomerular filtrate takes place in the

    1. A.PCT
    2. B.loop of Henle
    3. C.DCT
    4. D.collecting duct
  17. Question 174 marks

    ADH increases water reabsorption in the

    1. A.PCT
    2. B.glomerulus
    3. C.DCT and collecting duct
    4. D.Bowman's capsule
  18. Question 184 marks

    Birds and reptiles are mainly

    1. A.ammonotelic
    2. B.ureotelic
    3. C.uricotelic
    4. D.aminotelic
  19. Question 194 marks

    During muscle contraction, which band shortens?

    1. A.A band
    2. B.I band
    3. C.both
    4. D.neither
  20. Question 204 marks

    The joint between atlas and axis is a

    1. A.hinge joint
    2. B.pivot joint
    3. C.ball and socket joint
    4. D.gliding joint
  21. Question 214 marks

    The number of floating ribs in humans is

    1. A.2 pairs
    2. B.3 pairs
    3. C.5 pairs
    4. D.7 pairs
  22. Question 224 marks

    During the resting state, the axonal membrane is more permeable to

    1. A.Na⁺
    2. B.K⁺
    3. C.Cl⁻
    4. D.Ca²⁺
  23. Question 234 marks

    The two cerebral hemispheres are connected by the

    1. A.pons
    2. B.corpus callosum
    3. C.medulla
    4. D.thalamus
  24. Question 244 marks

    Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary?

    1. A.GH
    2. B.TSH
    3. C.oxytocin
    4. D.prolactin
  25. Question 254 marks

    Addison's disease results from low secretion of

    1. A.thyroxine
    2. B.adrenal cortex hormones
    3. C.insulin
    4. D.parathormone
  26. Question 264 marks

    Which hormone acts through intracellular receptors?

    1. A.insulin
    2. B.adrenaline
    3. C.oestrogen
    4. D.glucagon

Section B · Class 12 syllabus

Questions 27–45, 4 marks each.

  1. Question 274 marks

    Testosterone is secreted by

    1. A.Sertoli cells
    2. B.Leydig cells
    3. C.spermatogonia
    4. D.the epididymis
  2. Question 284 marks

    Implantation of the blastocyst takes place in the

    1. A.ovary
    2. B.fallopian tube
    3. C.endometrium
    4. D.cervix
  3. Question 294 marks

    The hormone detected in pregnancy tests is

    1. A.hCG
    2. B.FSH
    3. C.oxytocin
    4. D.relaxin
  4. Question 304 marks

    One primary oocyte produces how many functional ova?

    1. A.1
    2. B.2
    3. C.3
    4. D.4
  5. Question 314 marks

    Which is a hormone-releasing IUD?

    1. A.CuT
    2. B.Lippes loop
    3. C.LNG-20
    4. D.Multiload 375
  6. Question 324 marks

    In ZIFT, the zygote is transferred into the

    1. A.uterus
    2. B.fallopian tube
    3. C.cervix
    4. D.ovary
  7. Question 334 marks

    The wings of a bat and the forelimbs of a whale are

    1. A.analogous organs
    2. B.homologous organs
    3. C.vestigial organs
    4. D.convergent structures
  8. Question 344 marks

    In the Miller–Urey experiment, which gas was NOT used?

    1. A.CH₄
    2. B.NH₃
    3. C.O₂
    4. D.H₂
  9. Question 354 marks

    In a population in Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium, the frequency of the recessive allele is 0.4. The frequency of heterozygotes is

    1. A.0.16
    2. B.0.24
    3. C.0.48
    4. D.0.36
  10. Question 364 marks

    The infective stage of Plasmodium injected by a mosquito is the

    1. A.merozoite
    2. B.sporozoite
    3. C.gametocyte
    4. D.trophozoite
  11. Question 374 marks

    HIV mainly attacks

    1. A.B lymphocytes
    2. B.helper T lymphocytes
    3. C.red blood cells
    4. D.platelets
  12. Question 384 marks

    Which antibody is found in colostrum?

    1. A.IgA
    2. B.IgE
    3. C.IgG
    4. D.IgM
  13. Question 394 marks

    Elephantiasis is caused by

    1. A.Ascaris
    2. B.Wuchereria
    3. C.Plasmodium
    4. D.Entamoeba
  14. Question 404 marks

    The enzyme used in PCR is

    1. A.DNA ligase
    2. B.Taq polymerase
    3. C.reverse transcriptase
    4. D.EcoRI
  15. Question 414 marks

    Recombinant colonies in blue–white selection appear

    1. A.blue
    2. B.white
    3. C.red
    4. D.colourless and dead
  16. Question 424 marks

    DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis move towards the

    1. A.cathode
    2. B.anode
    3. C.centre
    4. D.do not move
  17. Question 434 marks

    The first clinical gene therapy (1990) was for

    1. A.cystic fibrosis
    2. B.ADA deficiency
    3. C.haemophilia
    4. D.sickle-cell anaemia
  18. Question 444 marks

    RNA interference is used to protect tobacco from

    1. A.bollworm
    2. B.Meloidogyne incognita
    3. C.aphids
    4. D.TMV
  19. Question 454 marks

    In humans, insulin is made of

    1. A.one polypeptide chain
    2. B.two chains linked by disulphide bonds
    3. C.three chains
    4. D.a single chain with a C peptide

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