Sample paper · NEET Preparation Zoology

Zoology · Sample Paper 2

NEET-UG pattern — 45 fresh MCQs on the full Class 11 + 12 Zoology syllabus, 4 marks each.

45 questions · 180 marks · 45 minutes

Timed, marked on submit · free with an account

General instructions

  1. This paper has 45 multiple-choice questions, each with one correct answer. All are compulsory.
  2. Section A — Q1 to Q26: Class 11 syllabus. Section B — Q27 to Q45: Class 12 syllabus.
  3. Each correct answer earns 4 marks. In the real NEET a wrong answer costs 1 mark; this practice paper does not deduct marks.
  4. Time: 45 minutes — the share of Zoology in the 180-minute NEET paper.

Section A · Class 11 syllabus

Questions 1–26, 4 marks each.

  1. Question 14 marks

    Cnidoblasts (stinging cells) are characteristic of

    1. A.sponges
    2. B.coelenterates
    3. C.flatworms
    4. D.annelids
  2. Question 24 marks

    Which animal shows metameric segmentation?

    1. A.Ascaris
    2. B.earthworm
    3. C.Taenia
    4. D.Hydra
  3. Question 34 marks

    A water vascular system is found in

    1. A.molluscs
    2. B.echinoderms
    3. C.arthropods
    4. D.chordates
  4. Question 44 marks

    Which is an egg-laying mammal?

    1. A.kangaroo
    2. B.platypus
    3. C.bat
    4. D.whale
  5. Question 54 marks

    Tendons connect

    1. A.bone to bone
    2. B.muscle to bone
    3. C.muscle to muscle
    4. D.skin to muscle
  6. Question 64 marks

    Which epithelium lines the inner surface of the fallopian tubes?

    1. A.squamous
    2. B.ciliated
    3. C.keratinised
    4. D.compound
  7. Question 74 marks

    The secondary structure of a protein is stabilised mainly by

    1. A.peptide bonds
    2. B.hydrogen bonds
    3. C.disulphide bonds only
    4. D.ionic bonds
  8. Question 84 marks

    Which is a polymer of fructose?

    1. A.starch
    2. B.glycogen
    3. C.inulin
    4. D.cellulose
  9. Question 94 marks

    A non-protein organic cofactor tightly bound to an enzyme is a

    1. A.coenzyme
    2. B.prosthetic group
    3. C.metal ion
    4. D.apoenzyme
  10. Question 104 marks

    Most CO₂ is transported in the blood as

    1. A.dissolved CO₂
    2. B.carbaminohaemoglobin
    3. C.bicarbonate
    4. D.carbonic acid
  11. Question 114 marks

    Emphysema is a disorder in which

    1. A.alveolar walls are damaged
    2. B.bronchi are inflamed only
    3. C.the larynx swells
    4. D.the diaphragm is paralysed
  12. Question 124 marks

    The volume of air remaining in the lungs after forceful expiration is

    1. A.tidal volume
    2. B.residual volume
    3. C.vital capacity
    4. D.inspiratory reserve volume
  13. Question 134 marks

    Which blood cells are the most abundant leucocytes?

    1. A.lymphocytes
    2. B.neutrophils
    3. C.eosinophils
    4. D.basophils
  14. Question 144 marks

    The 'lub' sound of the heart is caused by

    1. A.closure of semilunar valves
    2. B.closure of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
    3. C.opening of AV valves
    4. D.atrial contraction
  15. Question 154 marks

    Erythroblastosis foetalis occurs when

    1. A.Rh⁻ mother carries an Rh⁺ foetus (second pregnancy)
    2. B.Rh⁺ mother carries an Rh⁻ foetus
    3. C.both are Rh⁻
    4. D.both are Rh⁺
  16. Question 164 marks

    The counter-current mechanism in the kidney involves

    1. A.glomerulus and Bowman's capsule
    2. B.Henle's loop and vasa recta
    3. C.PCT and DCT
    4. D.ureter and bladder
  17. Question 174 marks

    Renin is secreted by

    1. A.podocytes
    2. B.juxtaglomerular cells
    3. C.collecting duct
    4. D.loop of Henle
  18. Question 184 marks

    Glycosuria indicates

    1. A.kidney stones
    2. B.diabetes mellitus
    3. C.uraemia
    4. D.gout
  19. Question 194 marks

    The functional unit of a myofibril is the

    1. A.sarcolemma
    2. B.sarcomere
    3. C.myosin
    4. D.actin
  20. Question 204 marks

    Calcium ions in muscle contraction bind to

    1. A.actin
    2. B.myosin
    3. C.troponin
    4. D.tropomyosin
  21. Question 214 marks

    Gout is caused by accumulation of

    1. A.calcium
    2. B.uric acid crystals
    3. C.lactic acid
    4. D.urea
  22. Question 224 marks

    The myelin sheath around axons of the PNS is formed by

    1. A.oligodendrocytes
    2. B.Schwann cells
    3. C.astrocytes
    4. D.microglia
  23. Question 234 marks

    The part of the brain that controls body temperature, hunger and thirst is the

    1. A.cerebellum
    2. B.hypothalamus
    3. C.medulla
    4. D.pons
  24. Question 244 marks

    Which hormone is called the 'fight or flight' hormone?

    1. A.insulin
    2. B.thyroxine
    3. C.adrenaline
    4. D.melatonin
  25. Question 254 marks

    Deficiency of growth hormone in childhood causes

    1. A.gigantism
    2. B.dwarfism (pituitary)
    3. C.cretinism
    4. D.acromegaly
  26. Question 264 marks

    Thymosins are secreted by the thymus and help in

    1. A.digestion
    2. B.differentiation of T-lymphocytes
    3. C.regulating blood sugar
    4. D.calcium balance

Section B · Class 12 syllabus

Questions 27–45, 4 marks each.

  1. Question 274 marks

    Spermiogenesis is the transformation of

    1. A.spermatogonia into spermatocytes
    2. B.spermatids into sperms
    3. C.primary into secondary spermatocytes
    4. D.sperms into semen
  2. Question 284 marks

    The acrosome of a sperm is formed from the

    1. A.mitochondria
    2. B.Golgi apparatus
    3. C.nucleus
    4. D.centriole
  3. Question 294 marks

    Fertilisation in humans normally occurs in the

    1. A.uterus
    2. B.ampullary region of the fallopian tube
    3. C.cervix
    4. D.ovary
  4. Question 304 marks

    The hormone responsible for milk ejection is

    1. A.prolactin
    2. B.oxytocin
    3. C.progesterone
    4. D.relaxin
  5. Question 314 marks

    Which is a surgical method of contraception in males?

    1. A.tubectomy
    2. B.vasectomy
    3. C.IUD
    4. D.pill
  6. Question 324 marks

    Saheli, an oral contraceptive pill, is

    1. A.steroidal and taken daily
    2. B.non-steroidal and taken once a week
    3. C.an IUD
    4. D.an injection
  7. Question 334 marks

    The theory of natural selection was proposed by

    1. A.Lamarck
    2. B.Darwin and Wallace
    3. C.de Vries
    4. D.Oparin
  8. Question 344 marks

    Industrial melanism in peppered moths is an example of

    1. A.genetic drift
    2. B.natural selection
    3. C.mutation
    4. D.artificial selection
  9. Question 354 marks

    Homo erectus had a brain capacity of about

    1. A.650–800 cc
    2. B.900 cc
    3. C.1400 cc
    4. D.450 cc
  10. Question 364 marks

    The causative agent of typhoid is

    1. A.Salmonella typhi
    2. B.Haemophilus influenzae
    3. C.Plasmodium vivax
    4. D.Entamoeba histolytica
  11. Question 374 marks

    Which cells produce antibodies?

    1. A.T-lymphocytes
    2. B.B-lymphocytes (plasma cells)
    3. C.macrophages
    4. D.neutrophils
  12. Question 384 marks

    The vaccine for hepatitis B is produced using

    1. A.killed bacteria
    2. B.recombinant DNA technology in yeast
    3. C.live virus
    4. D.antibodies
  13. Question 394 marks

    Cocaine is obtained from

    1. A.Papaver somniferum
    2. B.Erythroxylum coca
    3. C.Cannabis sativa
    4. D.Atropa belladonna
  14. Question 404 marks

    The first restriction endonuclease isolated was

    1. A.EcoRI
    2. B.Hind II
    3. C.BamHI
    4. D.Taq
  15. Question 414 marks

    The 'ori' in a cloning vector is

    1. A.the selectable marker
    2. B.the origin of replication
    3. C.the restriction site
    4. D.the promoter
  16. Question 424 marks

    Agrobacterium tumefaciens is used to transfer genes into

    1. A.animal cells
    2. B.dicot plant cells
    3. C.bacteria
    4. D.fungi
  17. Question 434 marks

    Bt cotton is resistant to

    1. A.viruses
    2. B.bollworms
    3. C.fungi
    4. D.drought
  18. Question 444 marks

    The first transgenic cow, Rosie, produced milk enriched with

    1. A.insulin
    2. B.human α-lactalbumin
    3. C.growth hormone
    4. D.vitamin A
  19. Question 454 marks

    ELISA is based on the principle of

    1. A.DNA hybridisation
    2. B.antigen–antibody interaction
    3. C.PCR
    4. D.gel electrophoresis

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