Paediatric Infections · NEET PG Preparation Paediatrics
An 8-year-old boy presents with fever, sore throat, and bilateral tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Examination of the oropharynx reveals bri…
Practice question from Paediatric Infections (NEET PG Preparation Paediatrics), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-05CB81
An 8-year-old boy presents with fever, sore throat, and bilateral tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Examination of the oropharynx reveals bright red tonsils with yellowish-white exudates and palatal petechiae. There is no cough or rhinorrhea. Rapid antigen detection test is positive for Streptococcus pyogenes. Which of the following is the most important objective of initiating antimicrobial therapy in this patient?
- A.Prevention of acute glomerulonephritis
- B.Prevention of acute rheumatic feverCorrect answer
- C.Prevention of suppurative peritonsillar abscess
- D.Reduction of the duration of acute pharyngitis symptoms
Solution
While antibiotics reduce symptom duration and suppurative complications, the most critical medical objective of treating streptococcal pharyngitis is the primary prevention of acute rheumatic fever. Interestingly, antibiotic treatment does not reliably prevent post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis.
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