General Surgery, Trauma & Burns · NEET PG Preparation Surgery
A 30-year-old male presents with a painful, fluctuant mass in the intergluteal cleft containing hair-containing pits. He gives a history of recurrent…
Practice question from General Surgery, Trauma & Burns (NEET PG Preparation Surgery), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-3E3E7E
A 30-year-old male presents with a painful, fluctuant mass in the intergluteal cleft containing hair-containing pits. He gives a history of recurrent purulent discharge from the area. What is the definitive surgical treatment to prevent recurrence of this condition?
- A.Daily shaving and antibiotics only
- B.Incision and drainage alone
- C.Excision of the sinus tract with open packing, marsupialization, or primary/flap closure (e.g., Limberg flap)Correct answer
- D.Sclerotherapy with phenol injection
Solution
The clinical presentation is classic for a pilonidal sinus. While incision and drainage is performed for acute abscesses, the definitive management to prevent recurrence requires excision of the primary pits and secondary tracts, followed by various closure methods (open, primary, or flap techniques like Limberg or Bascom).
More from General Surgery, Trauma & Burns
- A 35-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He is hypotensive (BP 80/50 mmHg)…
- A 28-year-old construction worker is brought in after sustaining deep partial-thickness and full-thickness burns involving his entire anter…
- A 45-year-old male is admitted with severe acute pancreatitis. On the third day of admission, he develops acute respiratory distress with t…
- A 60-year-old male undergoes an elective low anterior resection for rectal adenocarcinoma. On postoperative day 5, he develops severe lower…
Practise more Surgery
Sign up free for adaptive practice on this chapter, with instant feedback and hints on every question.
Start practising freeFree to start · No credit card needed