Mood Disorders · NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry
A 32-year-old male is brought to the psychiatry emergency by his family. He presents with a 2-week history of persistently elevated mood, decreased n…
Practice question from Mood Disorders (NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-765978
A 32-year-old male is brought to the psychiatry emergency by his family. He presents with a 2-week history of persistently elevated mood, decreased need for sleep (sleeping only 2 hours per night), rapid and pressured speech, grandiosity, and reckless financial spending. He believes he has been chosen by a higher power to save the global economy. His symptoms cause significant impairment in occupational functioning, but he does not exhibit psychotic features outside of the grandiose delusions. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?
- A.Bipolar I disorder, current episode manicCorrect answer
- B.Bipolar II disorder, current episode hypomanic
- C.Cyclothymic disorder
- D.Schizoaffective disorder
Solution
The presence of a manic episode (duration of at least 1 week or leading to hospitalization, with marked impairment in functioning, elevated/irritable mood, decreased need for sleep, and grandiosity) is sufficient for the diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder. Hypomanic episodes in Bipolar II do not cause marked impairment and do not feature psychotic symptoms.
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