Vascular Surgery · NEET PG Preparation Surgery
A 45-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe right lower limb pain, pallor, pulselessness, poikilothermia, paresthesia, and paralysis of 3…
Practice question from Vascular Surgery (NEET PG Preparation Surgery), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-969632
A 45-year-old male presents with acute onset of severe right lower limb pain, pallor, pulselessness, poikilothermia, paresthesia, and paralysis of 3 hours duration. He has a known history of chronic atrial fibrillation. What is the most definitive initial step in management, assuming the limb is viable?
- A.Immediate therapeutic anticoagulation with intravenous heparin and surgical revascularization (embolectomy)Correct answer
- B.Systemic thrombolytic therapy with streptokinase as the sole treatment
- C.Conservative management with bed rest and vasodilators
- D.Primary above-knee amputation
Solution
Acute limb ischemia due to an embolic source (such as atrial fibrillation) requires immediate IV heparin to prevent thrombus propagation, followed by urgent revascularization, most commonly via Fogarty catheter embolectomy, provided the limb is not irreversibly damaged.
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