Urology · NEET PG Preparation Surgery
A 28-year-old male presents with a dull, heavy dragging sensation in his left scrotum. On physical examination, the left hemiscrotum reveals a collec…
Practice question from Urology (NEET PG Preparation Surgery), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
hard · MCQ · Q-98EF9E
A 28-year-old male presents with a dull, heavy dragging sensation in his left scrotum. On physical examination, the left hemiscrotum reveals a collection of tortuous veins that increase in size with the Valsalva maneuver and disappear when the patient lies supine. An abdominal ultrasound confirms a left varicocele. Which of the following underlying renal or retroperitoneal abnormalities should be specifically ruled out?
- A.Renal cell carcinoma with left renal vein thrombosisCorrect answer
- B.Right-sided renal angiomyolipoma
- C.Horseshoe kidney with ureteropelvic junction obstruction
- D.Polycystic kidney disease
Solution
A left varicocele is common due to the anatomical drainage of the left testicular vein into the left renal vein at a 90-degree angle. However, a sudden-onset varicocele that does not empty in the supine position, or a right-sided varicocele, should raise suspicion for an retroperitoneal mass such as a renal cell carcinoma invading the renal vein. In young adults, bilateral or left varicocele is typically idiopathic, but secondary causes must be considered if atypical.
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