Plastic Surgery & Hernia · NEET PG Preparation Surgery
A 45-year-old male presents with a reducible bulge in the right groin extending into the scrotum. Intraoperatively, the hernia sac is found lying sep…
Practice question from Plastic Surgery & Hernia (NEET PG Preparation Surgery), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-A05F4F
A 45-year-old male presents with a reducible bulge in the right groin extending into the scrotum. Intraoperatively, the hernia sac is found lying separate and distinct from the elements of the spermatic cord. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.Direct inguinal hernia
- B.Indirect inguinal herniaCorrect answer
- C.Sliding hernia
- D.Congenital hydrocele
Solution
An indirect inguinal hernia passes through the deep inguinal ring and travels inside the spermatic cord enclosed within the internal spermatic fascia. However, in exam-based classical descriptions, an indirect hernia sac is distinct from the cord structures, whereas direct hernias bulge medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through Hesselbach's triangle.
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