Chapter 1 · NEET PG Preparation ENT

Ear

10 practice questions · 5 marks weightage

Topics in this chapter

  • Ear Anatomy and Physiology
  • Hearing Tests and Hearing Loss
  • External and Acute Middle Ear Disease
  • Chronic Otitis and Cholesteatoma
  • Inner Ear Disorders and Vertigo
  • Otosclerosis and Stapes Surgery
  • Temporal Bone and Ear Complications

Practice questions

  1. Question 1Q-CB766C

    A 35-year-old male presents with recurrent episodes of vertigo lasting 30 minutes to 2 hours, associated with fluctuating low-frequency sensorineural hearing loss, roaring tinnitus, and a sense of aural fullness in the left ear. Which of the following is the underlying pathophysiology of this condition?

    1. A.Endolymphatic hydrops
    2. B.Perilymphatic fistula
    3. C.Otoconia dislocation within the semicircular canals
    4. D.Viral labyrinthitis
    See the answer and solution
  2. Question 2Q-6E4FE0

    A 5-year-old child is brought to the ENT clinic with a 2-day history of severe right ear pain, fever, and irritability. Examination reveals a bulging, hyperemic, and immobile right tympanic membrane with loss of normal landmarks. Which of the following is the most common bacterial pathogen responsible for this condition?

    1. A.Pseudomonas aeruginosa
    2. B.Streptococcus pneumoniae
    3. C.Staphylococcus aureus
    4. D.Moraxella catarrhalis
    See the answer and solution
  3. Question 3Q-76D049

    During tuning fork tests in a patient with a left-sided conductive hearing loss, the Rinne test is negative on the left. Where would you expect the Weber test to lateralize?

    1. A.To the right ear
    2. B.To the left ear
    3. C.Localized centrally
    4. D.Alternating between both ears
    See the answer and solution
  4. Question 4Q-9E9D73

    A 45-year-old female presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss that started in her 20s and has worsened during pregnancy. Otoscopy reveals normal tympanic membranes with a reddish hue visible through the anterior-inferior quadrant (Schwartze sign). What is the definitive management for the primary pathological process causing her hearing loss?

    1. A.Long-term high-dose systemic corticosteroids
    2. B.Stapedotomy or stapedectomy
    3. C.Radical mastoidectomy
    4. D.Endolymphatic sac decompression
    See the answer and solution
  5. Question 5Q-49A271

    A 24-year-old male presents with foul-smelling, scanty right ear discharge and progressive hearing loss. Otoscopy shows a pars flaccida retraction pocket filled with keratin debris and crusts. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

    1. A.Aural toiletry and topical antibiotic-steroid drops only
    2. B.Systemic antiviral therapy
    3. C.Exploratory tympanotomy and mastoidectomy
    4. D.Hyperbaric oxygen therapy
    See the answer and solution

5 more questions on Ear

Sign up free to practise the full chapter. Questions you get wrong come back until you've mastered them.

Start practising free

Free to start · No credit card needed