Ear · NEET PG Preparation ENT
A 45-year-old female presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss that started in her 20s and has worsened during pregnancy. Otoscopy reveals nor…
Practice question from Ear (NEET PG Preparation ENT), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
hard · MCQ · Q-9E9D73
A 45-year-old female presents with progressive bilateral hearing loss that started in her 20s and has worsened during pregnancy. Otoscopy reveals normal tympanic membranes with a reddish hue visible through the anterior-inferior quadrant (Schwartze sign). What is the definitive management for the primary pathological process causing her hearing loss?
- A.Long-term high-dose systemic corticosteroids
- B.Stapedotomy or stapedectomyCorrect answer
- C.Radical mastoidectomy
- D.Endolymphatic sac decompression
Solution
The patient has otosclerosis, characterized by abnormal bone resorption and deposition in the otic capsule, typically fixing the stapes footplate in the oval window. Schwartze sign indicates hypervascular active otosclerosis. Surgical management involves stapedotomy or stapedectomy to restore sound conduction.
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