Menstrual Disorders & Infertility · NEET PG Preparation Obstetrics & Gynaecology
A 32-year-old woman presents with primary infertility and oligomenorrhea. Her BMI is 32 text{ kg/m}^2. Clinical examination reveals acanthosis nigric…
Practice question from Menstrual Disorders & Infertility (NEET PG Preparation Obstetrics & Gynaecology), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-1E0369
A 32-year-old woman presents with primary infertility and oligomenorrhea. Her BMI is . Clinical examination reveals acanthosis nigricans and mild hirsutism. Ultrasound of the pelvis shows polycystic ovaries. Laboratory investigations show normal prolactin and TSH, an elevated LH/FSH ratio (>2:1), and normal to elevated testosterone. Which of the following is the first-line medical therapy for ovulation induction in this patient for treating her infertility?
- A.Clomiphene citrateCorrect answer
- B.Metformin monotherapy
- C.HMG (Human Menopausal Gonadotropin) injections
- D.Combined oral contraceptive pills
Solution
This patient has Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS). For ovulation induction in infertile women with PCOS, clomiphene citrate (or letrozole, which is increasingly considered first-line) is the standard first-line oral ovulation-inducing agent. While lifestyle modification and metformin help with metabolic parameters, clomiphene citrate/letrozole is the primary medical treatment for pregnancy induction.
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