Normal & Abnormal Labour · NEET PG Preparation Obstetrics & Gynaecology
A 30-year-old G2P1L1 presents at 40 weeks with spontaneous rupture of membranes and strong regular contractions. Pelvic assessment reveals a brow pre…
Practice question from Normal & Abnormal Labour (NEET PG Preparation Obstetrics & Gynaecology), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
hard · MCQ · Q-3025BE
A 30-year-old G2P1L1 presents at 40 weeks with spontaneous rupture of membranes and strong regular contractions. Pelvic assessment reveals a brow presentation persisting at the pelvic brim with no descent. Which of the following is the standard management for a persistent brow presentation at term with an average-sized fetus?
- A.Trial of labor with oxytocin augmentation
- B.Manual conversion to vertex presentation
- C.Lower segment cesarean sectionCorrect answer
- D.Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
Solution
Persistent brow presentation presents an unengaged, extremely large diameter (mento-occipital, ) to the pelvis, making vaginal delivery virtually impossible for a term fetus. Cesarean section is the definitive management.
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