Substance Use Disorders · NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry
A 45-year-old chronic alcoholic man is admitted for elective surgery. On the third postoperative day, he becomes increasingly confused, agitated, and…
Practice question from Substance Use Disorders (NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-42583B
A 45-year-old chronic alcoholic man is admitted for elective surgery. On the third postoperative day, he becomes increasingly confused, agitated, and tremulous. He reports seeing crawling insects on the walls and feels terrified. Examination reveals a temperature of 38.5 C, pulse rate of 124/min, blood pressure of 160/100 mmHg, and profuse diaphoresis. What is the most definitive first-line pharmacological treatment?
- A.Haloperidol alone
- B.Long-acting benzodiazepines (e.g., Diazepam or Chlordiazepoxide)Correct answer
- C.Disulfiram
- D.Intramuscular Naltrexone
Solution
The patient is experiencing Delirium Tremens (DTs), a medical emergency occurring 48-96 hours after the last drink in severe alcohol withdrawal. First-line treatment consists of frequent symptom-triggered or fixed-schedule doses of long-acting benzodiazepines (like diazepam, chlordiazepoxide, or lorazepam) along with supportive care and thiamine replacement.
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