Rheumatology · NEET PG Preparation Medicine
A 45-year-old man presents with inflammatory low back pain and morning stiffness that improves with exercise, lasting for over 3 years. He also devel…
Practice question from Rheumatology (NEET PG Preparation Medicine), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-7BE860
A 45-year-old man presents with inflammatory low back pain and morning stiffness that improves with exercise, lasting for over 3 years. He also develops asymmetric oligoarthritis of the lower limbs. Radiography of the pelvis reveals bilateral sacroiliitis. Which of the following human leukocyte antigens (HLA) is most strongly associated with this condition?
- A.HLA-B27Correct answer
- B.HLA-DR4
- C.HLA-DQ2
- D.HLA-B51
Solution
Ankylosing spondylitis is a seronegative spondyloarthropathy strongly associated with HLA-B27, which is present in over 90% of patients with the disease.
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