Infectious Diseases · NEET PG Preparation Medicine
A 30-year-old male is evaluated for a painless ulcer on his penis that appeared 3 weeks ago, which has now spontaneously healed. He now presents with…
Practice question from Infectious Diseases (NEET PG Preparation Medicine), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-8299AC
A 30-year-old male is evaluated for a painless ulcer on his penis that appeared 3 weeks ago, which has now spontaneously healed. He now presents with a generalized maculopapular rash that involves the palms and soles, along with generalized non-tender lymphadenopathy. Which of the following is the definitive diagnostic method to visualize the causative organism?
- A.Gram staining
- B.Darkfield microscopyCorrect answer
- C.Tzanck smear
- D.Culture on Sabouraud agar
Solution
The patient has secondary syphilis, characterized by a primary chancre followed by disseminated rash involving the palms and soles. Treponema pallidum is a spirochete that cannot be cultured on standard media or easily seen on Gram stain due to its thinness. Darkfield microscopy is the classic method to visualize live spirochetes from primary or secondary lesion exudates.
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