Infectious Diseases · NEET PG Preparation Medicine

A 32-year-old male presents with high-grade fever, severe myalgia, retro-orbital pain, and a generalized maculopapular rash. On examination, he has a…

Practice question from Infectious Diseases (NEET PG Preparation Medicine), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.

medium · MCQ · Q-A356EA

A 32-year-old male presents with high-grade fever, severe myalgia, retro-orbital pain, and a generalized maculopapular rash. On examination, he has a positive tourniquet test and petechiae on the lower limbs. Laboratory investigations reveal thrombocytopenia (platelet count 45,000/μL45,000/\mu L) and hemoconcentration with a rising hematocrit. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate step in the management of this patient?

  1. A.Prophylactic platelet transfusion
  2. B.Cautious intravenous fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloidsCorrect answer
  3. C.Immediate administration of intravenous broad-spectrum antibiotics
  4. D.High-dose systemic corticosteroids

Solution

The patient has Dengue with warning signs (or severe dengue indicators like hemoconcentration and thrombocytopenia). The hallmark of severe dengue management is plasma leakage leading to intravascular volume depletion. Cautious intravenous fluid resuscitation with isotonic crystalloids is the cornerstone of management. Prophylactic platelet transfusions are generally not recommended unless there is significant bleeding, as platelets will also be consumed or destroyed.

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