STDs & Pigmentary Disorders · NEET PG Preparation Dermatology
A 28-year-old male presents with a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans penis of 10 days duration, along with bilateral non-tender firm inguinal ly…
Practice question from STDs & Pigmentary Disorders (NEET PG Preparation Dermatology), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-19C0C2
A 28-year-old male presents with a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans penis of 10 days duration, along with bilateral non-tender firm inguinal lymphadenopathy. Dark-field microscopy of the ulcer exudate reveals spirochetes with characteristic corkscrew motility. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating this condition?
- A.Oral Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
- B.Single intramuscular dose of Benzathine Penicillin G 2.4 million unitsCorrect answer
- C.Intravenous Ceftriaxone 1 g daily for 14 days
- D.Oral Azithromycin 1 g single dose
Solution
The patient presents with a classic primary chancre and regional lymphadenopathy, indicative of primary syphilis caused by Treponema pallidum. The drug of choice for primary syphilis is a single intramuscular injection of Benzathine Penicillin G 2.4 million units.
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