Inhalational & Intravenous Anaesthetics · NEET PG Preparation Anaesthesia
A 35-year-old male is induced with propofol for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Immediately following the induction dose, he experiences a…
Practice question from Inhalational & Intravenous Anaesthetics (NEET PG Preparation Anaesthesia), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-7DE338
A 35-year-old male is induced with propofol for an elective laparoscopic cholecystectomy. Immediately following the induction dose, he experiences a sudden drop in blood pressure from 120/80 mmHg to 85/50 mmHg with no significant change in heart rate. Which of the following is the primary mechanism responsible for this hemodynamic response?
- A.Direct beta-1 adrenergic receptor antagonism
- B.Inhibition of sympathetic vasoconstrictor activity and direct vasodilationCorrect answer
- C.Severe histamine release leading to acute vasodilation
- D.Profound vagal stimulation causing reflex bradycardia and hypotension
Solution
Propofol causes systemic arterial and venous vasodilation primarily by resetting the baroreflex mechanism and inhibiting sympathetic vasoconstrictor nerve activity, along with a direct smooth muscle relaxant effect. Unlike agents that cause histamine release (e.g., atracurium), propofol is not a potent histamine releaser.
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