Chapter 5 · INI-CET Preparation Dermatology
STDs & Pigmentary Disorders
10 practice questions · 5 marks weightage
Topics in this chapter
- STI Fundamentals and Syndromes
- Bacterial Sexually Transmitted Infections
- Viral Sexually Transmitted Infections
- Protozoal and Vaginal STIs
- Hyperpigmentation Disorders
- Vitiligo and Pigmentary Birthmarks
Practice questions
- Question 1Q-19C0C2See the answer and solution
A 28-year-old male presents with a painless, indurated ulcer on the glans penis of 10 days duration, along with bilateral non-tender firm inguinal lymphadenopathy. Dark-field microscopy of the ulcer exudate reveals spirochetes with characteristic corkscrew motility. Which of the following is the drug of choice for treating this condition?
- A.Oral Doxycycline 100 mg twice daily for 7 days
- B.Single intramuscular dose of Benzathine Penicillin G 2.4 million units
- C.Intravenous Ceftriaxone 1 g daily for 14 days
- D.Oral Azithromycin 1 g single dose
- Question 2Q-E4393BSee the answer and solution
A 32-year-old sexually active female presents with a profuse yellow-green frothy vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and dysuria. Speculum examination reveals a 'strawberry cervix' with punctate hemorrhages. Wet mount microscopy of the vaginal secretions is most likely to reveal which of the following?
- A.Budding yeast cells and pseudohyphae
- B.Motile flagellated protozoa
- C.Clue cells with adherent coccobacilli
- D.Intracellular Gram-negative diplococci
- Question 3Q-CC09D4See the answer and solution
A 25-year-old male presents with multiple hyperpigmented, velvety plaques in the axillae and neck folds. He has a BMI of 34 kg/m2 and fasting blood glucose of 140 mg/dL. Skin biopsy shows epidermal hyperkeratosis and papillomatosis with minimal hyperpigmentation of the basal layer. What is the most appropriate term for this dermatological manifestation?
- A.Acanthosis nigricans
- B.Confluent and reticulated papillomatosis
- C.Darier disease
- D.Dowling-Degos disease
- Question 4Q-CF9002See the answer and solution
A 30-year-old woman presents with progressive, well-demarcated depigmented patches over the dorsal hands, face, and knees. Wood's lamp examination reveals blue-white fluorescence of the lesions. Histopathological examination of a lesional skin biopsy will most characteristically show:
- A.Increased number of melanocytes in the basal layer
- B.Complete absence of melanocytes in the epidermis
- C.Normal number of melanocytes with increased melanin clumping
- D.Dense dermal infiltrate of melanin-laden macrophages
- Question 5Q-897328See the answer and solution
A 24-year-old male presents with multiple painful vesicular and ulcerative lesions on the genitalia, accompanied by tender inguinal lymphadenopathy and systemic symptoms including fever and malaise. Tzanck smear from the base of an ulcer reveals multinucleated giant cells. What is the most definitive diagnostic test for this condition?
- A.Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test
- B.Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or viral culture
- C.Dark-field microscopy
- D.Gram stain showing gram-negative rods in 'school of fish' pattern
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