Psychopharmacology · NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry
A 45-year-old woman with bipolar disorder type I is brought to the emergency department with coarse tremors, ataxia, vomiting, and confusion. Her ser…
Practice question from Psychopharmacology (NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
hard · MCQ · Q-3DF455
A 45-year-old woman with bipolar disorder type I is brought to the emergency department with coarse tremors, ataxia, vomiting, and confusion. Her serum lithium level is found to be 2.2 mEq/L. Which of the following is the most definitive management step in severe lithium toxicity when conservative measures fail or levels are extremely high?
- A.Administer intravenous normal saline and furosemide
- B.Perform hemodialysisCorrect answer
- C.Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate)
- D.Administer flumazenil intravenously
Solution
Severe lithium toxicity (levels > 2.0 mEq/L with severe neurological symptoms or renal impairment) is an indication for hemodialysis, as lithium is dialyzable due to its low molecular weight and minimal protein binding.
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