Psychopharmacology · NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry
A 32-year-old male initiated on a new psychiatric medication develops hyperthermia, 'lead-pipe' muscle rigidity, autonomic instability (fluctuating b…
Practice question from Psychopharmacology (NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
hard · MCQ · Q-F4C309
A 32-year-old male initiated on a new psychiatric medication develops hyperthermia, 'lead-pipe' muscle rigidity, autonomic instability (fluctuating blood pressure, tachycardia), and altered mental status. Laboratory workup shows a markedly elevated creatine phosphokinase (CPK). Which condition is most likely, and what is the primary neurotransmitter deficit involved?
- A.Serotonin syndrome; Excess serotonin
- B.Neuroleptic malignant syndrome; Central dopamine blockadeCorrect answer
- C.Anticholinergic toxicity; Peripheral acetylcholine excess
- D.Malignant hyperthermia; NMDA receptor hypofunction
Solution
Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening idiosyncratic reaction to dopamine antagonists (antipsychotics) characterized by extreme hyperthermia, lead-pipe rigidity, autonomic instability, and altered mental status due to profound central dopaminergic blockade.
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