Psychopharmacology · NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry
A 28-year-old man is prescribed a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic (e.g., haloperidol) for acute psychosis. Three days later, he presents…
Practice question from Psychopharmacology (NEET PG Preparation Psychiatry), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-B80E66
A 28-year-old man is prescribed a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic (e.g., haloperidol) for acute psychosis. Three days later, he presents with painful, involuntary sustained upward deviation of the eyes and arching of the back. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment?
- A.Intravenous or intramuscular benztropine or diphenhydramineCorrect answer
- B.Oral lithium carbonate
- C.Intravenous fluoxetine
- D.Oral propranolol
Solution
The patient is experiencing an acute dystonic reaction (oculogyric crisis, opisthotonos), which is an extrapyramidal symptom typically treated rapidly with anticholinergic agents like benztropine or antihistamines with strong anticholinergic properties like diphenhydramine.
More from Psychopharmacology
- A 35-year-old male with treatment-resistant schizophrenia is started on clozapine. Which of the following baseline investigations is mandat…
- A 45-year-old woman with bipolar disorder type I is brought to the emergency department with coarse tremors, ataxia, vomiting, and confusio…
- Which of the following antidepressants is classified as a Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor (SNRI) and is also FDA-approved for t…
- A 32-year-old male initiated on a new psychiatric medication develops hyperthermia, 'lead-pipe' muscle rigidity, autonomic instability (flu…
Practise more Psychiatry
Sign up free for adaptive practice on this chapter, with instant feedback and hints on every question.
Start practising freeFree to start · No credit card needed