Retina & Vitreous · NEET PG Preparation Ophthalmology
A 58-year-old hypertensive male presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at t…
Practice question from Retina & Vitreous (NEET PG Preparation Ophthalmology), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-660475
A 58-year-old hypertensive male presents with sudden painless loss of vision in his right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula, a pale retina, and attenuated retinal arterioles with 'box-carring' of blood in the venules. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.Central retinal vein occlusion
- B.Central retinal artery occlusionCorrect answer
- C.Branch retinal artery occlusion
- D.Diabetic maculopathy
Solution
Central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO) presents with sudden, profound, painless loss of vision. Fundoscopy classically shows retinal whitening due to ischemia, a cherry-red spot at the fovea (where the thin retina allows the choroidal circulation to show through), and arteriolar attenuation often with segmentation or 'box-carring' of blood flow.
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