Cardiovascular & Respiratory Pathology · NEET PG Preparation Pathology
A 55-year-old male with a history of anterior wall myocardial infarction 3 days ago develops sudden, severe chest pain, profound hypotension, and a d…
Practice question from Cardiovascular & Respiratory Pathology (NEET PG Preparation Pathology), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-8804F7
A 55-year-old male with a history of anterior wall myocardial infarction 3 days ago develops sudden, severe chest pain, profound hypotension, and a disappearance of carotid pulses despite continuing electrical activity on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following is the most likely underlying structural complication?
- A.Ventricular septal rupture
- B.Free wall myocardial rupture with cardiac tamponadeCorrect answer
- C.Papillary muscle rupture with acute mitral regurgitation
- D.Left ventricular pseudoaneurysm formation
Solution
Free wall rupture typically occurs within 3 to 7 days post-myocardial infarction when the necrotic myocardium is weakest due to maximal neutrophil infiltration and enzymatic lysis. It leads to rapid hemopericardium, cardiac tamponade, and electromechanical dissociation (pulseless electrical activity).
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