Renal & GI Pathology · NEET PG Preparation Pathology
A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and low-grade fever. Colonoscopy reveals continuous, conflue…
Practice question from Renal & GI Pathology (NEET PG Preparation Pathology), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-C724F0
A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent episodes of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and low-grade fever. Colonoscopy reveals continuous, confluent superficial mucosal inflammation and ulcers starting from the rectum and extending proximally into the sigmoid colon. Biopsy shows crypt abscesses and goblet cell depletion, but no granulomas. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
- A.Crohn disease
- B.Ulcerative colitisCorrect answer
- C.Infectious colitis
- D.Ischemic colitis
Solution
Ulcerative colitis is characterized by continuous mucosal inflammation starting in the rectum and extending proximally, limited to the mucosa and submucosa, with features like crypt abscesses and absence of granulomas. Crohn disease typically presents with transmural inflammation, skip lesions, and non-caseating granulomas.
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