Chapter 6 · NEET PG Preparation Surgery
Neurosurgery & Cardiothoracic Surgery
10 practice questions · 5 marks weightage
Topics in this chapter
- Neurosurgical Trauma
- Cerebrovascular Neurosurgery
- Brain and Pituitary Tumors
- Congenital Cardiac Surgery
- Thoracic Trauma and Emergencies
- Esophageal Surgical Disorders
- Lung Cancer and Thoracic Oncology
- Cardiothoracic Postoperative Care
Practice questions
- Question 1Q-89AE51See the answer and solution
A 54-year-old man presents with progressive headache, personality changes, and right-sided hemiparesis. MRI reveals a butterfly-like enhancing mass in the corpus callosum with extensive surrounding edema and central necrosis. Which of the following is the most likely pathological diagnosis?
- A.Meningioma
- B.Glioblastoma multiforme
- C.Primary CNS lymphoma
- D.Schwannoma
- Question 2Q-9B65A9See the answer and solution
A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He was unconscious at the scene, briefly regained consciousness ('lucid interval'), and then rapidly deteriorated into a coma with right-sided hemiparesis and a fixed, dilated left pupil. Which of the following vessels is most likely injured?
- A.Middle meningeal artery
- B.Bridging veins
- C.Anterior cerebral artery
- D.Vertebral artery
- Question 3Q-B6668CSee the answer and solution
A 65-year-old man with a history of long-standing hypertension presents with sudden onset of the 'worst headache of his life', followed by vomiting and a brief loss of consciousness. On examination, he is stiff-necked and photophobic, but has no focal neurological deficits. Non-contrast CT head shows hyperdensity in the basal cisterns and sulci. What is the most common underlying cause of this condition?
- A.Arteriovenous malformation
- B.Saccular (berry) aneurysm rupture
- C.Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage
- D.Mycotic aneurysm
- Question 4Q-02408BSee the answer and solution
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive bitemporal hemianopia and amenorrhea-galactorrhea. Serum prolactin levels are markedly elevated at 4,500 ng/mL. Which of the following is the initial treatment of choice?
- A.Transsphenoidal surgical resection
- B.Dopamine agonist therapy (e.g., cabergoline)
- C.Fractionated stereotactic radiotherapy
- D.Observation with serial visual field testing
- Question 5Q-C17B65See the answer and solution
A 60-year-old man undergoes coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). On the third postoperative day, he develops sudden-onset severe shortness of breath, restlessness, and a drop in oxygen saturation. Examination reveals absent breath sounds and a dull percussion note over the left hemithorax, with tracheal deviation to the right. Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate intervention?
- A.Immediate endotracheal intubation
- B.Emergency needle decompression of the left chest
- C.Urgent tube thoracostomy (chest tube insertion)
- D.Immediate administration of systemic thrombolytics
5 more questions on Neurosurgery & Cardiothoracic Surgery
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