Neurosurgery & Cardiothoracic Surgery · NEET PG Preparation Surgery

A 65-year-old man with a history of long-standing hypertension presents with sudden onset of the 'worst headache of his life', followed by vomiting a…

Practice question from Neurosurgery & Cardiothoracic Surgery (NEET PG Preparation Surgery), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.

medium · MCQ · Q-B6668C

A 65-year-old man with a history of long-standing hypertension presents with sudden onset of the 'worst headache of his life', followed by vomiting and a brief loss of consciousness. On examination, he is stiff-necked and photophobic, but has no focal neurological deficits. Non-contrast CT head shows hyperdensity in the basal cisterns and sulci. What is the most common underlying cause of this condition?

  1. A.Arteriovenous malformation
  2. B.Saccular (berry) aneurysm ruptureCorrect answer
  3. C.Hypertensive intracerebral hemorrhage
  4. D.Mycotic aneurysm

Solution

The clinical presentation of a thunderclap headache ('worst headache of my life') with meningeal signs and blood in the basal cisterns on CT is classic for a subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH). The most common cause of spontaneous SAH is the rupture of a saccular (berry) aneurysm, frequently located at the bifurcation of vessels in the circle of Willis.

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