Neurosurgery & Cardiothoracic Surgery · NEET PG Preparation Surgery
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive bitemporal hemianopia and amenorrhea-galactorrhea. Serum prolactin levels are markedly elevated at 4,50…
Practice question from Neurosurgery & Cardiothoracic Surgery (NEET PG Preparation Surgery), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
easy · MCQ · Q-02408B
A 45-year-old woman presents with progressive bitemporal hemianopia and amenorrhea-galactorrhea. Serum prolactin levels are markedly elevated at 4,500 ng/mL. Which of the following is the initial treatment of choice?
- A.Transsphenoidal surgical resection
- B.Dopamine agonist therapy (e.g., cabergoline)Correct answer
- C.Fractionated stereotactic radiotherapy
- D.Observation with serial visual field testing
Solution
Unlike most other pituitary adenomas where surgery is the primary treatment, prolactinomas are treated medically as the first-line therapy. Dopamine agonists such as cabergoline or bromocriptine effectively lower prolactin levels and reduce tumor size, even in the presence of mass effect and visual symptoms.
More from Neurosurgery & Cardiothoracic Surgery
- A 54-year-old man presents with progressive headache, personality changes, and right-sided hemiparesis. MRI reveals a butterfly-like enhanc…
- A 28-year-old male is brought to the emergency department following a high-speed motor vehicle collision. He was unconscious at the scene,…
- A 65-year-old man with a history of long-standing hypertension presents with sudden onset of the 'worst headache of his life', followed by…
- A 60-year-old man undergoes coronary artery bypass grafting (CABG). On the third postoperative day, he develops sudden-onset severe shortne…
Practise more Surgery
Sign up free for adaptive practice on this chapter, with instant feedback and hints on every question.
Start practising freeFree to start · No credit card needed