Blood & Immunity · NEET PG Preparation Physiology
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with pernicious anemia due to autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells. Which of the following laboratory fin…
Practice question from Blood & Immunity (NEET PG Preparation Physiology), with the correct answer and a step-by-step solution.
medium · MCQ · Q-9B8C81
A 45-year-old male is diagnosed with pernicious anemia due to autoimmune destruction of gastric parietal cells. Which of the following laboratory findings is most characteristic of this condition?
- A.Microcytic hypochromic anemia with decreased serum ferritin
- B.Macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophilsCorrect answer
- C.Normocytic normochromic anemia with positive direct Coombs test
- D.Normocytic anemia with target cells and basophilic stippling
Solution
Pernicious anemia results from a lack of intrinsic factor due to autoimmune destruction of parietal cells, leading to vitamin B12 deficiency. This causes megaloblastic (macrocytic) anemia characterized by high MCV and hypersegmented neutrophils on the peripheral smear.
More from Blood & Immunity
- A 32-year-old pregnant woman with blood group O negative is found to have an indirect Coombs test positive at 28 weeks of gestation. Which…
- During the process of hemostasis, von Willebrand factor (vWF) plays a critical role in primary hemostasis. What is the primary function of…
- A patient with severe liver cirrhosis presents with a prolonged prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR), while the b…
- Which of the following interleukins is the primary endogenous pyrogen responsible for inducing the acute phase response and fever in the hy…
Practise more Physiology
Sign up free for adaptive practice on this chapter, with instant feedback and hints on every question.
Start practising freeFree to start · No credit card needed